The first verse of the translation talks about Heathens, which are people who are unconverted, therefore not occupying any religious views. The first verse asks why be angry at these people, thus indicating an almost non-religious tone to the Psalm. In the second verse of the original version of Psalm II, the word "lord", written as LORD indicates not only a religious undertone, but a specific one. As we learned in class, "LORD" references the Jewish God adonai. In the second verse of the translation, "lord" is simply spelled "Lord". While "Lord" is obviously religious, it doesn't pertain to a particular religion. The translation seems to veer away from Judaic references. I also noticed the language of the translation is more casual.
(more to come)
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